Nov 11, 2020
SHOW ME THE LEDGER! NO, NOT THE ONE FROM THE SELF PROCLAIMED SERVICER. SHOW ME THE ONE FROM THE COMPANY CLAIMING THEY PAID VALUE FOR THE DEBT.
I have been beating around the bush too long. In my opinion, rejection of a claim for foreclosure from securitization players is not the equivalent of any windfall for any homeowner. It is merely an acknowledgment of payment for services rendered by the homeowner. The reverse is true: allowing foreclosure to securitization players results in a windfall payment to those players without any corresponding reduction of any “loan” account receivable.
If you send a QWR or DVL out, you are sending it to someone who has no relation to your loan, thus allowing the other players to claim plausible deniability for all the lies you are about to be told. The response is gibberish and in total is the equivalent of “because we said so.”
I might also add that they never assert that the loan account is owned by anyone despite their protestations to the contrary. They often do not identify the originator (like “America’s Whole Lender”) as a legal person or business entity. If it is not a legal person it cannot be a legal person who is the principal in an agency relationship with MERS. People forget that “nominee” means agent.
In lay language, the question is “who do I ask?” What is the name of the company that claims ownership of my underlying obligation resulting from payment of value?
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My opinion is that they don’t say it because nobody does. And nobody says it because there is no person or business entity that has any confirmable entry on its ledgers showing payment of value in exchange for a conveyance of ownership of the underlying obligation.
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This is not a technical objection. It is completely and utterly substantive. Without payment for the obligation, nobody can claim a loss. They can’t claim a loss because there is no loss. Without a loss there can be no remedy.
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The securitization players offered securities to investors, the proceeds of such sales going to the investment bank who in turn distributed the money to the other players including “borrowers.” Without those securities, there would have been no transaction. But as a result of issuing and selling those securities — and then derivatives of those securities— the revenue from the sale of securities was in excess of 12 times the amount of the homeowner transaction. {Don’t ask me to justify that — ask ANYONE in the industry if that is not true}
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Nobody wanted to be a lender who would then be accountable for violations of lending laws. So they made sure there was no lender. We are all going down the same rabbit hole when we refer to the homeowner transaction as a loan. It was a payment to get the homeowner to execute documents that were labeled as loan documents — a payment that had to be returned, leaving the homeowner with no compensation for his/her role in generating so much revenue.
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In fact when you factor in payments labeled as “interest” the homeowner receives negative compensation. Viewed from that perspective the homeowner is paying for his own execution.
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Everyone is shying away from the elephant in the living room. What is so bad about the homeowner getting a “free house” in the context of a larger scheme that produced so much revenue to everyone except the homeowner?
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If it was a loan, then there would be a lender with a risk of loss and who was accountable for compliance with lending laws — particularly those requiring disclosure of compensation and revenue arising from the execution of the documents.
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If it was a loan, then there would be a lender who was a stakeholder — i.e., someone who retained risk of loss and intent for the transaction to be performed and successful.
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Instead, homeowners got no lender and not even a clue as to who they did business with nor the true extent of revenue and profits generated from what was in reality, simply a securities scheme with no substantive characteristics of a loan.
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Instead, the homeowner was left with a nonlender who had no role in underwriting the viability of the loan contrary to the express requirements of TILA. In fact, and again contrary to the express requirements of TILA, the homeowner was left with nobody who had any stake in the viability or performance of any loan.
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To add insult to injury, the securitization players had substantial financial incentives to steer borrowers into nonviable loans against which the players bet would fail — this producing even more profits.
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So tell me again why this is a loan. And tell me why the compensation that the securitization players chose to give to the homeowner should not be retained by the homeowner. And while you are doing that, tell me why the consideration for drafting the homeowner into a concealed securitization scheme should not be expanded.
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But don’t tell me you can foreclose and evict a homeowner just to get back the only consideration he/she ever received from you. That’s not capitalism. It is a fraud.
PRACTICE HINT: At the very start be confrontative. When opposing counsel says “Your Honor, this is a standard foreclosure,” you should interrupt and object saying that the face of the complaint or notice shows that this is not a standard foreclosure and it may not be a foreclosure at all if they can’t produce a creditor. Drill in the defense narrative wherever you can create the opportunity.
Remember that you are not just looking for securitization language. You are also looking for securitization players. If the foreclosure is on behalf of Citi, PennyMac or BofA, those are securitization players. Just because they don’t refer to securitization does not mean that they are holding a ledger showing their payment for the debt and maintenance of a current asset account against which they are claiming a loss. If you don’t understand what that means, go talk to a CPA.
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Neil F Garfield, MBA, JD, 73, is a Florida licensed trial and appellate attorney since 1977. He has received multiple academic and achievement awards in business and law. He is a former investment banker, securities broker, securities analyst, and financial analyst.
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